TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN CHÂU TRINH
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ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022
Môn TIẾNG ANH 11
Thời gian: 45 phút
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PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (7 MARKS)
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question.
SPRING FESTIVALS
Since the earliest time people have celebrated the end of winter and the new life that spring brings.
One of the most important Christian festivals is Easter, (1)______________ Christians remember the death of
Jesus Christ.
Easter, however, is not the (2)___________ spring festival, in Sweden, people celebrate the end of the
winter by making huge bonfires. Fire also plays an important part in the Hindu festival of Holi. In
some Villages children are (3)___________ round bonfires by their mothers to protect them from danger in
the coming year. Buddhists in Thailand soak one other in water when (4)_______________ their New Year,
which falls in the middle of April. In Antigua in Guatemala they carpet the streets with flowers.
Chinese Spring parades are .4 equally colorful, but (5)______________ flowers they have large dragon
puppets which dance in the streets.
Qüestion 1: A. which B. when C. because D. by then
Question 2: A. single B. one C. only D. lonely
Question 3: A. gone B. carried C. run D. brought
Question 4: A. driving B. celebrating C. arranging D. founding
Question 5: A. instead of B. on behalf of C. in spite of D. in short
Choose ONE sentence that is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 6: He started working as a teacher five years ago.
A. He has been working as a teacher for five years.
B. He has worked as a teacher since five years.
C. He is working as a teacher since five years.
D. He had been working as a teacher for five years
Question 7: The farmers had finished their farm work, they returned home.
A. Have finished their farm work, the farmers returned home
B. Finished their farm work, the farmers returned home
C. Having finished their farm work, the farmers returned home.
D. Being finished their farm work, the farmers returned
Question 8: They got ready and then went out to dinner.
A. As soon as they got ready, they went out to dinner.
B. When they were getting ready, they went out to dinner.
C. Before they got ready, they had gone out to dinner.
D. After they had got ready, they went out to dinner.
Question 9: We can’t finish our report in such a short time.
A. It is impossible for us not to finish our report in such a short time.
B. It is impossible for us to finish our report in such a short time.
C. It is possible for us to finish our report in such a short time.
D. It is very easy for us to finish our report in such a short time.
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases.
Question 10: One of the qualities for true___________ is constancy.
A. friend B. friendly C. friendship D. friendliness
Question 11: We always celebrate our wedding _______________ with dinner in an expensive restaurant every year.
A. party B. anniversary C. cake D. ring
Question 12: In tonight’s quiz, our contestants have come from all over the country.
A. judges B. teachers C. sponsors D. competitors
Question 13: I can’t stand people with no___________ of humor.
A. sense B. ability C. spirit D. keenness
Question 14: All students can take part in the annual English-speaking Competition.
A. happening once every six months B. happening once a month
C. happening once a year D. happening once a term
Question 15: Tuan: “What kind of volunteer work are you participating in?”
Lan: “______ ”.
A. Taking care of old and sick people B. Asking them for some money
C. Telling them about my problems D. Going shopping every day.
Question 16: Gorge: “Thank you very much for a lovely party”
Alice: .
A. Shame on you! B. You are welcome
C. Have a good day D. The same to you.
Question 17: Jack: “What type of contest do you like taking part in best?”
Bill: “ ”
A. It is wonderful B. It makes me happy
C. I participated in the contest D. Singing contest.
Question 18: Would you like___________ to the cinema with us?
A. going B. to go C. gone D. go
Question 19: She should avoid__________ other people’s feeling.
A. hurts B. to hurt C. hurt D. hurting
Question 20:_________ told me she was ill, so I didn’t visit her.
A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one
Question 21: John suggested____________ to the new branch in Vietnam.
A. to appoint B. to be appointed
C. being appointed D. appointing
Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting.
Question 22: My father usually drink beer after meals but now he is drinking tea.
Question 23: You can congratulate yourself about having done an excellent job.
Question 24: Minh’s friends asked him how long would he stay in Paris.
Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 25: A. sneaky B. ready C. scream D. please
Question 26: A. home B. hold C. hour D. helmet
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others
Question 27: A. problem B. enough C. listen D. summer
Question 28: A. happiness B. example C. advantage D. disaster
PART B: WRITING (3 MARKS)
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 29: “How about going to the movies on Saturday evening?” Lan said.
Lan suggested______________________________________________
Question 30: “If I were you, I wouldn’t hurt their feeling”, Mary said to Mr Pike.
Mary told______________________________________________
—(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết phần nội dung của đề thi số 1 vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)—
ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (7 MARKS)
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PART B: WRITING (3 MARKS)
Lan suggested going to the movies on Saturday evening.
Question 30: “If I were you, I wouldn’t hurt their feeling”, Mary said to Mr Pike.
Mary told Mr Pike if she were him. she wouldn’t hurt their feeling.
Write the correct form of the words in brackets.
Question 31: competitor Question 32: having been appointed
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in brackets in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 33: Before we passed the exam, we had worked very hard.
Question 34: If she had known that they were out of work, she would have helped them
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (7 MARKS)
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question.
I’m in favor of English-speaking (1) ____________ in schools. Such contests (2) _______________ students to practice speaking English in their classes and help them improve their speaking skills. Besides, while (3)________ themselves for the contests, students have a chance to review their lessons thoroughly.
Contests among classes provide students with opportunities to work with team spirit, thus enabling them to learn how (4)__________ with other people. Some students may think that their preparations for
the speaking contests are time-consuming. However, in my opinion, such preparations are worth spending time on. My classmates and I have found that we speak English better after each contest. In sum, English-speaking contests (5)_______________________________________ school are useful to students.
Question 1:
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A. clubs
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B. contests
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C. meetings
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D.
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classes
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Question 2:
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A. advise
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B. suggest
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C. invite
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D.
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encourage
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Question 3:
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A. to prepare
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B. preparing
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C. prepare
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D.
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was preparing
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Question 4:
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A. cooperating
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B. cooperate
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C. to cooperate
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D.
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cooperated
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Question 5:
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A. at
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B. on
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C.about
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D.
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to
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Choose ONE sentence that is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 6: I had slept for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.
A. Have slept for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.
B. Having been slept for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.
C. Having slept for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.
D. Have been slept for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.
Question 7: He last wrote home two months ago.
A. He hasn’t written home for two months.
B. He didn’t write home for two months.
C. He wrote home every two months.
D. He often wrote home twice a month.
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases.
Question 8: A lot of children participated in___________ performances.
A. raising-fund B. fundraising C. fundraise D. funding-raise
Question 9: I heard someone___________ the back window last night.
A. to open B. opened C. to opening D. open
Question 10: I looked everywhere but I couldn’t find_____________ at all.
A. no one B. anyone C. someone D. somebody
Question 11: They expected___________ at the airport by the General Director.
A. to meet B. being met C. to be met D. meeting
Question 12: Mary often found her teacher’s remarks stimulating.
A. participating B. enjoying C. encourging D. scoring
Question 13: I’ve got lots of___________ , but only a few are really good friends.
A. close friends B. acquaintances C. neighbors D. partners
Question 14: The_________ will observe and score your performance in the contest.
A. judges B. contestants C. sponsors D. winners
Question 15: The climax of the New Year was a firework display.
A. celebration B. celebrate C. celebrator D. celebratory
Question 16: We really do not like his sneaky behavior, which has made us feel uncomfortable.
A. wearing fashionable clothes
B. doing things carefully
C. acting in a secret or deceptive way
D. doing things carelessly
Question 17: Mary: “What kind of volunteer work are you taking part in?”.
Peter: “________
A. We’re joining a dance club.
B. We’re not doing anything.
C. We’re building houses for the poor.
D. We’re selling food.
Question 18: A: What do you think of the general Knowledge Quiz?
-B: ________________ .
A. That’s a good idea, but I am busy.
B. Oh, it’s interesting.
C. Not too bad, but vey busy.
D. No, it’s over there.
Question 19:_________ – It was in the garden.
A. How was the party?
B. Who did you go with?
C. What was the music like?
D. Where was the party?
Question 20: After I had heard the conditions, .
A. I was deciding not to enter the competition.
B. I has decided not to enter the competition.
C. I was decided not to enter the competition.
D. I decided not to enter the competition.
Question 21:_________ is a holiday in Vietnam celebrated on September 2nd every year.
A. Thanksgiving B. Mother’s Day
C. Teacher’s Day D. independence Day
Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting.
Question 22: Linda blows for the candles on the cake.
Question 23: They told me that if it didn’t rain, they will go out with me.
Question 24: The food had already got cold by the time they had come.
Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 25: A. relation B. together C. successful D. celebrate
Question 26: A. contest B. sponsor C. observe D. method
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others
Question 27: A. hopeful B. honest C. happen D. happy
Question 28: A. candle B. cake C. decorate D. celebrate
PART B: WRITING (3 MARKS)
Rewrite or combine the following (pair of) sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 29: “1 hear you won the championship. Congratulations!”
Linda congratulated ________________________ .
Question 30: “If I were you, I wouldn’t buy this coat,” she said to John.
She told ________________________ .
—(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết phần nội dung của đề thi số 2 vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)—
ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (7 MARKS)
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PART B: WRITING (3 MARKS)
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 29: Linda congratulated me on having won/winning the championship.
Question 30: She told John (that) if she were him, she wouldn’t buy that coat.
Write the correct form of the words in brackets.
Question 31: I am expected to be invited to the party by John.
Question 32: Some young volunteers work in the home of sick or old people.
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in brackets in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 33: If she had studied hard, she could have done the test well.
Question 34: Having spent his childhood in London, he knew the city well.
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (7 MARKS)
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question.
There are books with fairy tales in many countries. Often the same stories are known and repeated in many different languages. Most fairy tales begin with “Once upon a time” and end with “They lived happily ever after” so we will begin in the same way.
Once upon a time there was a girl called Cinderella who did all the work in the kitchen while her lazy sisters did nothing.
One night her sisters went to a balf*! at the palace. Cinderella was left at home, very sad. After a time her fairy god-mother appeared and told Cinderella that she could go to the ball – but to return home by midnight.
So she went to the ball in beautiful dress in a wonderful coach. She danced with the prince but at midnight she ran back home, leaving one of her shoes on the dance floor. The prince wanted to see her again and went to every house in the capital until he found that the shoe was the right size for Cinderella. She and the prince were married and lived happily ever after.
(*) a formal social gathering for dancing
Question 1: Books with fairy tales are found in____________ .
A. many countries B. our country only
C. all countries except ours D. few countries
Question 2: Who worked the hardest at home?
A. Cinderella’s sisters B. Cinderella’s step-mother
C. Cinderella herself D. Cinderella’s god-mother
Question 3: Cinderella was very sad because______________ .
A. she did all the work in the kitchen
B. her lazy sisters did nothing
C. her sisters were invited to a ball
D. her sisters went to a ball and left her at home
Question 4: Who helped Cinderella to go to the ball at the palace?
A. her sisters B. her step-mother
C. the prince D. her fairy god-mother
Question 5: At the end of the story_____________ .
A. the prince invited Cinderella to the ball
B. Cinderella’s god-mother came to see her
C. one of Cinderella sisters was married to the prince
D. Cinderella and the prince were married
Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 6: A. rumour B. affair C. party D. method
Question 7: A. relation B. together C. successful D. family
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other
Question 9: A. information B. entertainment C. discovery D. scientific
Question 10: A. environment B. particular C. situation D. expectedly
Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting.
Question 10: They said when they got to the station, the train leaves.
Question 11 : Nam apologized of breaking the vase.
Question 12: Mai said that she is enjoying an interesting film on TV the night before.
Choose ONE sentence that is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 13: As he had failed twice, he didn’t want to try again.
A. Having failed twice, he didn’t want to try again.
B. Having tried again, he failed twice.
C. He tried twice, and he failed again
D. He decided to do it once again after having failed twice
Question 14: It’s a long time since I saw a movie.
A. I spent a long time looking for a movie to see.
B. I have seen some movies so far.
C. I haven’t seen movies for a long time.
D. I saw a movie that took very long time.
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases.
Question 15: A person who has been chosen to speak or vote for someone else on behalf of a group is called a(n) .
A. contestant B. competitor C. examinee D. representative
Question 16: Some high-school students take part in helping disadvantaged children.
A. donate B. play C. participate D. raise
Question 17: Many students voluntarily spent their summer holidays teaching illiterate people to read and write.
A. people who are deaf.
B. people who are poor.
C. people who hate learning
D. people who don’t know how to read and write
Question 18: A(n)__________ is one that you simply know a little about but not a close one.
A. friend B. acquaintance C. stranger D. uncertain person
Question 19: Teenagers often have their____________ who they admire very much.
A. idols B. ideals C. images D. admirers
Question 20: The first quality for true friendship is_____________
A. unselfish B. unselfishness C. selfish D. selfishness
Question 21: We are planning___________ several historical sites in Hue.
A. visit B. to visit C. visiting D. visited
Question 22: He spends most of his time____________ computer games.
A. play B. to play C. playing D. played
Question 23: Has__________ arrived yet? It’s time to start now.
A. someone B. anyone C. no one D. everyone
Question 24: They expected__________ to the party, but they were disappointed.
A. to invite B. to be invited C. inviting D. being invited
Question 25: He__________ US about his marriage when we___________ afternoon tea.
A. told/ were having B. telling/ were having
C. told/ was having D. had told/ were having
Question 26: Lan: Thank you very much for a lovely party.”
Mai: “______ ”
A. Have a good day B. Come on
C. Cheers D. You’re welcome
Question 27: Nga: “What type of competition was it?”
Hung: “________ ”
A. General Knowledge Quiz
B. It’s the time when people celebrate the harvest
C. Mid-Autumn Festival
D. It was her birthday.
—(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết phần nội dung của đề thi số 3 vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)—
ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (7 MARKS)
1
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2
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3
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4
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5
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6
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7
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8
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9
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10
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11
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12
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13
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14
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A
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C
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D
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D
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D
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B
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D
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A
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C
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C
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B
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A
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A
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C
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15
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16
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17
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18
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19
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20
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21
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22
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23
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24
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25
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26
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27
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28
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D
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C
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D
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B
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A
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B
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B
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C
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D
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B
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A
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D
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A
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C
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PART B: WRITING (3 MARKS)
Write the correct form of the words in brackets
Question 1: embarrassing
Question 2: having been
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in brackets in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 3: Having got a credit card, I found it easy to book an airline ticket over the phone.
Question 4: The man told her (that) he wouldn’t come there unless he had time.
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in brackets in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 5: If I knew the answer. I could tell you.
Question 6: She accused me of being selfish.
I. LANGUAGE USE
Questions 1-5: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
1. A. charter
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B. casual
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C. curfew
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D. compare
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2. A. impairment
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B. assistance
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C. solution
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D. confidence
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3. A. disabled
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B. financial
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C. infectious
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D. cognitive
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4. A. sympathetic
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B. interference
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C. economic
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D. literature
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5. A. associate
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B. community
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C. mobility
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D. independent
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Questions 6-11: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
6. It was impossible _________ because of the noise.
A. slept
B. sleeping
C. sleep
D. to sleep
7. His decision to quit the job _________ all of us.
A. surprise
B. is surprised
C. surprising
D. surprised
8. People _________ the right skills always have big advantages in the job market.
A. of
B. about
C. for
D. with
9. So far, people _________ nearly $150,000 to help Virginia flood victims.
A. donate
B. donated
C. are donating
D. have donated
10. The Prime Minister _________ the Disability Confident Campaign two years ago.
A. has launched
B. has been launching
C. launches
D. launched
11. Group work is a great way to help disabled people _________ their self-esteem.
A. built
B. building
C. being built
D. build
Questions 12-16: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
12. Some parents discipline their teen children harshly for missing _____________ even though they are only a few minutes late.
A. curves
B. curlews
C. curation
D. curfews
13. Sometimes a close friendship can develop into a _____________.
A. romantic
B. romantically
C. roman
D. romance
14. There are days in which I am _____________ a loss as to fit so may tasks in my schedule.
A. among
B. in
C. out
D. at
15. For family _____________, there must be mutual respect, understanding, and communication among family members.
A. conflicts
B. gap
C. rules
D. solidarity
16. ______________ people used to think that people with disabilities always need to be looked after.
A. Undisabled
B. Imdisabled
C. Indisabled
D. Non-disabled
Questions 17-19: Choose the best option (A-D) for each of the gaps to complete the conversation.
Lan: (17) __________________________
James: I supposed it’s just a matter of time. As they grow up, they will be less dependent.
A. How to make our kids more independent, James?
B. When can we go on holiday, James?
C. Kids say their homework is stressful.
D. What is the most important task of parents?
James: Shall I pick you up at 6:00 for the movie?
My: (18) __________________________ go by myself. My class finishes at 5:45, so I’d better go straight to the cinema centre.
A. If you wouldn’t mind, I
B. It doesn’t really matter
C. Don’t worry. I can
D. That’s very kind of you, but actually
Patrick: I believe that education should be free for everyone.
Young-II: (19) __________________________
A. No sweat.
B. Credits should go to Mr Nam.
C. I couldn’t agree with you more.
D. Don’t worry. I’ll do that.
III. READING
Questions 20-24: Read the passage about online dating and circle the best option (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each numbered blank. An example has been done for you.
A new report from the Pew Research Center (0)____________ most Americans think online dating is a good way (28)____________ people. Almost 60 per cent of Internet users say there is nothing wrong with trying to find a partner on the Internet. Around one in ten Americans has used online dating services. About 11 per cent of people who started a long-term (29)____________ in the past decade met their partner online. However, 32 per cent of the interviewees think the Internet does not help with marriage.
Sociologist Dr Kevin Lewis of the University of California told the USA Today newspaper that women must remain (30)____________ about online dates. He said: “There are lots of guys who build (31)____________ profiles but they are not honest.” He said men can have problems finding a date, too. “They can’t get a woman to respond because women receive so many messages.” The Pew Report also warned people to be careful about those who tell lies about themselves online. Online (32)____________ are suggested to spend time understanding their dates before they decide to meet face to face.
0. A. tells
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B. talks
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C. says
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D. speaks
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20. A. meet
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B. to meet
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C. meeting
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D. met
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21. A. relate
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B. relative
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C. relating
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D. relationship
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22. A. easy
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B. cool
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C. elegant
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D. cautious
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23. A. flashy
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B. fashionable
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C. fast
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D. flying
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24. A. dating
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B. services
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C. daters
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D. assistants
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Questions 33-37: Read the passage about the ASEAN Para Games and circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to answer each of the given questions.
The year 2015 is a major year for Singapore sports! December 2015 will see Singapore hosting the 8th ASEAN Para Games. It is the first time in the history Singapore hosts the ASEAN Para Games for the persons with disabilities of this scale. Let’s see how we are going to Celebrate the Extraordinary!
The ASEAN Para Games – an every-two-year multi-sport event organised by the ASEAN Para Sports Federation (APSF) for athletes with a disability – will be hosted here in conjunction with our 50th anniversary of independence. The eighth Games, expected to host 3,000 athletes and officials, will wrap up Singapore’s 50th birthday celebrations. The seven-day multi-sport event will have its competition venues mainly at the Singapore Sports Hub and Kallang areas. There will be 15 sports in the 8th ASEAN Para Games. Beyond physical fitness, we believe in the power of sports to strengthen the character, uplift the spirits, and bond the community.
Adopting the theme of Celebrate the Extraordinary, the Games aims to stimulate friendship and solidarity amongst persons with disabilities in the ASEAN region, to encourage sport for the differently abled, and to integrate persons with disabilities into the society through sport. It will serve as a platform for promoting the bloc’s motto “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”.
25. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Singapore sports events
B. Celebrate the Extraordinary!
C. Who come to the Games?
D. The seventh ASEAN Para Games
26. The word “It” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. the ASEAN region
B. the ASEAN motto
C. Singapore
D. the Games
27. If the Games is held every two year, the 9th ASEAN Para Games will be organised in ____________.
A. 2016
B. 2017
C. 2018
D. 2019
28. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the power of sports?
A. Improve physical health.
B. Inspire people’s spirits.
C. Connect the society.
D. Recognise individual character.
29. One goal of the ASEAN Para Games is ____________.
A. to enhance solidarity among ASEAN
B. to integrate sports into the society
C. to serve a social platform
D. to create an ASEAN motto
IV. WRITING
—(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết phần nội dung của đề thi số 4 vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)—
ĐÁP ÁN
I. LANGUAGE USE
Questions 1-5: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
1. D
2. D
3. D
4. D
5. D
Questions 6-11: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. D
Questions 12-16: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
12. D
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. D
Questions 17-19: Choose the best option (A-D) for each of the gaps to complete the conversation.
17. A; 18. C; 19. C;
III. READING
Questions 28-32: Read the passage about online dating and circle the best option (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each numbered blank. An example has been done for you.
20. B; 21. D; 22. D; 23. A; 24. C;
Questions 33-37: Read the passage about the ASEAN Para Games and circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to answer each of the given questions.
25. B; 26. D; 27. B; 28. D; 29. A;
IV. WRITING
Questions 38-42: For each question, complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one(s) using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
30. must have left
31. (better) check your answers
32. stand getting up early
33. Speaking French
34. may snow tonight
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
1. A agree
|
B. arrange
|
C. area
|
D. award
|
2. A. competition
|
B. completion
|
C. information
|
D. question
|
II. Choose the best answers:
1. Tom: “I have passed my driving test.” Daisy: “_______________”
A. Congratulations!
B. Thank you!
C. Good luck!
D. Bye!
2. The “ ___________ ” is often celebrated on people’s 25th wedding anniversaries.
A . Golden Anniversary
B. Diamond Anniversary
C . Cotton Anniversary
D. Silver Anniversary
3. She ____________ that film three times.
A. sees
B. saw
C. had seen
D. has seen
4. We ____________ lunch when we heard the news.
A. have
B. had
C. had had
D. were having
5.When they got to the station, the train ____________ already.
A. left
B. leaves
C. has left
D. had left
6. “ Don’t talk in class”, the teacher said.
A. The teacher told his student do not talk in class.
B. The teacher told his student did not talk in class.
C. The teacher told his student not to talk in class.
D. The teacher told his student not talking in class.
7. My mother let me ______________ after 9 PM.
A. go
B. goes
C. to go
D. going
8. She reminded him______________ the door carefully.
A. close
B. to close
C. to be closed
D. being closed
9. I caught him__________ the fence.
A. jumps
B. jumping
C. to jump
D. having jumping
10. ______________ for more than four hours, I felt tired and hungry.
A. Having worked
B. have worked
C. Having been worked
D. have been worked
11. I really hate the kind of person who is always _____________about little things.
A. making a fuss
B. satisfied
C. doing a lot
D. add
12. “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” said Dave to Julia.
A. Dave said he is sorry he forgot Julia’s birthday.
B. Dave said to Julia that I’m sorry I forgot your birthday
C. Dave excused Julia for forgetting her birthday.
D. Dave apologized for forgetting Julia’s birthday.
13. The transition from school to work does not happen smoothly to everybody.
A. full of troubles
B. with problems
C. plenty of challenges
D. without difficulties
14. Schools need ______________ to help children to read and write.
A. volunteers
B. pioneers
C. engineers
D. innovators
15. would / invite / I / to / like / house / to / our / you / party / and / the / party / /
A. I would like invite you to our house and to enjoy the party.
B. I would like to invite you to our house and enjoy the party .
C. I would like to enjoy you to our house and invite the party.
D. I would like you to invite to our house and enjoy the party.
16. I warned An ______________ staying at the hotel near the airport.
A. for
B. from
C. against
D. again
17. Shy people often find it difficult to __________ group discussion
A. take place in
B. take part in
C. get on with
D. get in touch with
18. The competition was ______________ by the Students’ Parents Society.
A. bought B. called
C. sponsored
D. encouraged
III. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting:
1. I spent (A) most of (B) my time in the train (C) read (D) my favorite book.
2. You had better (A) learning (B) a foreign (C) language before applying (D) for a job.
IV. Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank
I’m in favor of English- speaking (1)_______in schools. Such contests encourage students to practice speaking English in their classes and help them (2)_________ their speaking skills. Besides, while preparing themselves for the contests, students have a chance to review their lessons thoroughly. Contests among classes provide students (3)_____________ opportunities to work with team spirit, thus enabling them to learn how (4)_______ with other people. Some students may think that their preparations for the speaking contests are time-consuming. However, in my opinion, such preparations are worth spending time on. My classmates and I have found that we speak English better after each contest. In sum, English-(5)___________contests school are useful to students.
1. A. clubs B. contests C. meetings D. classes
2. A. improve B. to improve C. A & B are correct D. improving
3. A. in B. for C. with D. to
4. A. cooperating B. to cooperate C. cooperate D. cooperated
5. A. speaking B. listening C. reading D. writing
V. Read the passage and answer the questions
Mother Teresa born in the Republic of Macedonia founded the Missionaries of Charity in India. The task of this charity was to care for the hungry, the homeless, the blind,….. . It began as a small order , a religious community , with 13 members in Calcutta; today it has more than 4,000 nuns running orphanages, AIDS hospices, and charity centers worldwide, and caring for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged , the poor and homeless and victims of floods… on six continents. In 1952 with the help of Indian officials the first home for the Dying was opened when she converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor. She also is the first to establish homes for AIDS victims. By the early 1970s, Mother Teresa had become an international celebrity. Her fame can be in large part attributed to the 1969 documentary ‘Something Beautiful for God’ which was filmed by Malcolm Muggeridge. In 1971, she was awarded the Pope John XXIII Peace Prize , and India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1980.
1. Who founded the Missionaries of Charity in India?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Did this charity look after the hungry, the homeless and the blind?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
3. What did Mother Teresa do in 1952?
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. Where do 4,000 nuns of the Missionaries of Charity care for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Who made a film about Mother Teresa’s noble work?
………………………………………………………………………………………
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ĐÁP ÁN
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
1 – C; 2 – D;
II. Choose the best answers:
1 – A; 2 – D; 3 – D; 4 – D; 5 – D;
6 – C; 7 – A; 8 – B; 9 – B; 10 – A;
11 – A; 12 – D; 13 – D; 14 – A; 15 – B;
16 – C; 17 – B; 18 – C;
III. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting:
1 – D; 2 – B;
IV. Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank
1 – B; 2 – C; 3 – C; 4 – B; 5 – A;
V. Read the passage and answer the questions
1 – Mother Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity in India.
2 – Yes, it did
3 – She converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor. She also the first to establish homes for AIDS victims.
4 – in Calcutta
5 – Malcolm Muggeridge
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
1B; 2A; 3A
…
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